darren7455
Longterm Registered User
Here is an old MSO multiple choice assessment that might be of use to someone entering the industry, or maybe the odd TL who wants to use it for his team...?
MSO Assessment # 3
Pass Mark 80% or 20 Correct Answers From 25 Questions
1. What is the main danger (from liability and legal perspectives) when utilising flares during EOF?
A: If your flare strikes a suspect vessel / craft you may be contravening the Geneva convention and / or ICoC code of conduct by utilising an improvised weapon.
B: In the event of military intervention - and subsequent detention of the potential pirates - they may have a genuine legal case and defence to state that they were simply fishing and continued their approach as they believe the discharge of flares from your vessel indicated that it was in distress and requesting assistance on the open seas. In addition, other merchant vessels may believe your vessel requires assistance.
C: The use of flares contravenes the current BMP advice and may invoke IMO intervention and legal action.
2. When constructing improvised ballistic protection in the form of a ‘round trap' or separator, identify the correct sequence of construction from the options below:
A: Steel plate outwards facing threat and triple line of sandbags on the inner or friendly side.
B: Triple line of sandbags outwards facing threat and steel on the inner or friendly side.
C: Double line of sandbags and bordered by double wooden planks or boards.
3. What is a NATO 9 Line used for?
A: MEDEVAC template for both civilian and military personnel.
B: 9 Line NATO report (Skiff identification) of suspicious approach.
C: Request for NATO air support in the form of observation only.
4. Surveillance capability , fire support, life support, increased range / transport and concealment are all potential characteristics of a…
A: Formation of 5 or more skiffs – all fitted with long range fuel tanks in the form of converted oil drums.
B: Mothership that forms the central supporting hub of a PAG.
C: Formation of 3 or more skiffs with at least one whaler.
5. Identify which statement is true.
A: Water hoses are generally a more effective deterrent when configured in herring bone formation.
B: Razor wire is most effective when concentrated as close to the bridge as possible.
C: You cannot send your lat / long GPS coordinates via a Thuraya as an SMS.
6. Massive blood loss causes which type of shock?
A: Neurological
B: Cardiogenic
C: Hypovolaemic
7. Identify the correct statement.
A: The team medic should be ANYONE but the TL.
B: The TL should always be trained as the team medic.
C: Anyone can be nominated as the team medic as long as they have completed the relevant STCW modules.
8. When your TL formulates a team watch routine he will also aim to incorporate watches that maximise the:
A: Circadian rhythm.
B: Ability of the team to respond to post sunset attacks.
C: Biorhythm.
9. PID is related to:
A: Post incident de-confliction
B: EOF/RUF
C: BMP 4
10. Identify the true statement:
A: The Somali Marines are a recognised pirate group.
B: The Somali Sea Rangers are a recognised pirate group.
C: The Somalia Oceanic Defence Association are a recognised pirate group.
11. Identify the false statement:
A: The RPG standard projectile has a self destruct fuse.
B: Due to the size of the stabilising fins, a standard RPG projectile will actually curve INTO the wind
C: A standard RPG projectile will only arm at distances of 75 metres.
12. A duress code might be used to:
A: Inform friendly forces that you are being held hostage without the knowledge of your captors.
B: Initiate defensive fire without the use of any radio traffic.
C: Gain entry into the Citadel in the event of an attack.
13. Your PPE (body armour and helmet) is generally graded according to levels of protection issued by:
A: The US National Institute of Justice
B: British Standards Organisation and SIA.
C: CE or European Safety Standards Association.
14. Religious, political, ecological and financial are all examples of:
A: The main principles of the EU Naval mission in the GOA.
B: The EU mission and funding project to Somalia – land based intervention only.
C: The motivational factors behind piracy.
15. When judging distance at sea, it is quite generally accepted that you will:
A: Underestimate the distance.
B: Only be able to accurately assess the distance with optical adjuncts.
C: You will overestimate the distance – typically by a factor of 50%.
16. Primary, secondary and tertiary are all examples of:
A: The characteristics of an explosion and the subsequent injury brackets / mechanisms of injury
B: Search patterns utilised by military air assets; typically rotary aircraft.
C: Obstacle emplacement
17. Which description best fits the profile of an RPK?
A: A light machine gun (LMG) that can accept a cylindrical drum, standard AK-47 and extended 40 round magazine.
B: A belt fed section machine gun that is fed via a non-disintegrating box magazine.
C: A second generation anti-tank weapon that supersedes the earlier RPG system.
18. Quik Clot is a:
A: A haemostatic granulated agent.
B: A highly absorbent multi-mesh dressing.
C: A self-applied combat tourniquet.
19. If your watch position was approximately 20 metres above the mean average sea level, how far would the horizon be?
A: 20K.
B: 33K.
C:16K.
20. Using the WMO sea state formula, a sea state presenting with a wave height of 2.5 – 4 meters and rough characteristics would equate to:
A: Sea state 5.
B: Sea state 4.
C: Sea state 3.
21. Your vessel is making 13 knots and being approached from the opposite heading by a skiff making 15 knots, what is the combined speed of approach?
A: 28 knots
B: 56 knots
C: 12 knots
22. When calculating adequate rations for use in the citadel, what calorific rate do we use?
A: Harley’s calorific formula.
B: Basal rate.
C: Kilojoules’ PH rate.
23. When utilising night vision, which statement is true?
A: NV equipment must be exposed to the external environment – in order to reach temperate acclimatisation and prevent the lenses ‘misting up’ – prior to darkness, i.e. 1 hour before…
B: NV equipment must only be removed from the bridge upon nightfall to prevent the device overheating.
C: NV equipment must be kept centrally on the bridge and only removed when regular scans of the horizon are required as the AC environment prolongs battery life.
24. Kevlar Ballistic Helmets; identify the correct statement?
A: Should be kept away from oils, adhesives and lubricants as contact with them will severely impede the protective qualities of the material.
B: Are impervious to contact with oils and lubricants.
C: Are all classed as being able to provide protection to NIJ Level 4B unless otherwise indicated.
25. According to current BMP advice, the ships’ AIS should utilised as follows during HRA passage?
A: Turned on for duration of passage.
B: Only activated when requested to do so by any radio contact by military assets / vessels.
C: Turned on and off on alternative cycles of every 25 nautical miles.
MSO Assessment # 3
Pass Mark 80% or 20 Correct Answers From 25 Questions
1. What is the main danger (from liability and legal perspectives) when utilising flares during EOF?
A: If your flare strikes a suspect vessel / craft you may be contravening the Geneva convention and / or ICoC code of conduct by utilising an improvised weapon.
B: In the event of military intervention - and subsequent detention of the potential pirates - they may have a genuine legal case and defence to state that they were simply fishing and continued their approach as they believe the discharge of flares from your vessel indicated that it was in distress and requesting assistance on the open seas. In addition, other merchant vessels may believe your vessel requires assistance.
C: The use of flares contravenes the current BMP advice and may invoke IMO intervention and legal action.
2. When constructing improvised ballistic protection in the form of a ‘round trap' or separator, identify the correct sequence of construction from the options below:
A: Steel plate outwards facing threat and triple line of sandbags on the inner or friendly side.
B: Triple line of sandbags outwards facing threat and steel on the inner or friendly side.
C: Double line of sandbags and bordered by double wooden planks or boards.
3. What is a NATO 9 Line used for?
A: MEDEVAC template for both civilian and military personnel.
B: 9 Line NATO report (Skiff identification) of suspicious approach.
C: Request for NATO air support in the form of observation only.
4. Surveillance capability , fire support, life support, increased range / transport and concealment are all potential characteristics of a…
A: Formation of 5 or more skiffs – all fitted with long range fuel tanks in the form of converted oil drums.
B: Mothership that forms the central supporting hub of a PAG.
C: Formation of 3 or more skiffs with at least one whaler.
5. Identify which statement is true.
A: Water hoses are generally a more effective deterrent when configured in herring bone formation.
B: Razor wire is most effective when concentrated as close to the bridge as possible.
C: You cannot send your lat / long GPS coordinates via a Thuraya as an SMS.
6. Massive blood loss causes which type of shock?
A: Neurological
B: Cardiogenic
C: Hypovolaemic
7. Identify the correct statement.
A: The team medic should be ANYONE but the TL.
B: The TL should always be trained as the team medic.
C: Anyone can be nominated as the team medic as long as they have completed the relevant STCW modules.
8. When your TL formulates a team watch routine he will also aim to incorporate watches that maximise the:
A: Circadian rhythm.
B: Ability of the team to respond to post sunset attacks.
C: Biorhythm.
9. PID is related to:
A: Post incident de-confliction
B: EOF/RUF
C: BMP 4
10. Identify the true statement:
A: The Somali Marines are a recognised pirate group.
B: The Somali Sea Rangers are a recognised pirate group.
C: The Somalia Oceanic Defence Association are a recognised pirate group.
11. Identify the false statement:
A: The RPG standard projectile has a self destruct fuse.
B: Due to the size of the stabilising fins, a standard RPG projectile will actually curve INTO the wind
C: A standard RPG projectile will only arm at distances of 75 metres.
12. A duress code might be used to:
A: Inform friendly forces that you are being held hostage without the knowledge of your captors.
B: Initiate defensive fire without the use of any radio traffic.
C: Gain entry into the Citadel in the event of an attack.
13. Your PPE (body armour and helmet) is generally graded according to levels of protection issued by:
A: The US National Institute of Justice
B: British Standards Organisation and SIA.
C: CE or European Safety Standards Association.
14. Religious, political, ecological and financial are all examples of:
A: The main principles of the EU Naval mission in the GOA.
B: The EU mission and funding project to Somalia – land based intervention only.
C: The motivational factors behind piracy.
15. When judging distance at sea, it is quite generally accepted that you will:
A: Underestimate the distance.
B: Only be able to accurately assess the distance with optical adjuncts.
C: You will overestimate the distance – typically by a factor of 50%.
16. Primary, secondary and tertiary are all examples of:
A: The characteristics of an explosion and the subsequent injury brackets / mechanisms of injury
B: Search patterns utilised by military air assets; typically rotary aircraft.
C: Obstacle emplacement
17. Which description best fits the profile of an RPK?
A: A light machine gun (LMG) that can accept a cylindrical drum, standard AK-47 and extended 40 round magazine.
B: A belt fed section machine gun that is fed via a non-disintegrating box magazine.
C: A second generation anti-tank weapon that supersedes the earlier RPG system.
18. Quik Clot is a:
A: A haemostatic granulated agent.
B: A highly absorbent multi-mesh dressing.
C: A self-applied combat tourniquet.
19. If your watch position was approximately 20 metres above the mean average sea level, how far would the horizon be?
A: 20K.
B: 33K.
C:16K.
20. Using the WMO sea state formula, a sea state presenting with a wave height of 2.5 – 4 meters and rough characteristics would equate to:
A: Sea state 5.
B: Sea state 4.
C: Sea state 3.
21. Your vessel is making 13 knots and being approached from the opposite heading by a skiff making 15 knots, what is the combined speed of approach?
A: 28 knots
B: 56 knots
C: 12 knots
22. When calculating adequate rations for use in the citadel, what calorific rate do we use?
A: Harley’s calorific formula.
B: Basal rate.
C: Kilojoules’ PH rate.
23. When utilising night vision, which statement is true?
A: NV equipment must be exposed to the external environment – in order to reach temperate acclimatisation and prevent the lenses ‘misting up’ – prior to darkness, i.e. 1 hour before…
B: NV equipment must only be removed from the bridge upon nightfall to prevent the device overheating.
C: NV equipment must be kept centrally on the bridge and only removed when regular scans of the horizon are required as the AC environment prolongs battery life.
24. Kevlar Ballistic Helmets; identify the correct statement?
A: Should be kept away from oils, adhesives and lubricants as contact with them will severely impede the protective qualities of the material.
B: Are impervious to contact with oils and lubricants.
C: Are all classed as being able to provide protection to NIJ Level 4B unless otherwise indicated.
25. According to current BMP advice, the ships’ AIS should utilised as follows during HRA passage?
A: Turned on for duration of passage.
B: Only activated when requested to do so by any radio contact by military assets / vessels.
C: Turned on and off on alternative cycles of every 25 nautical miles.
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